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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

08.06.2025 06:21

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Why don’t people show patriot Donald Trump the respect he deserves? He’s successful in business, politics, and with the ladies.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

A protestant (one that adheres to sola scriptura) disagrees with a catholic. How do they propose resolving the dispute?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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There's no rule.